Intention to create officially recognized relations within Contract Law?

Why does the law presume that the parties did not intend to be bound by their agreement surrounded by the case of domestic and social agreements? but the intention to create legal relations is presumed contained by commercial transactions.
Why is this?

Contract Law
Because it reflects reality?

If you ask your boyfriend to appropriate out the trash and he agrees, are you both assuming this is a legal arrangement whereby you'll sue him if he forgets and you do it instead?

A commercial transaction is almost worthless without a mutual caring that the parties have lawful rights and obligations; if I order 2000 widgets I expect a bill and I'd expect to be sued if I didn't foot and expect to be able to sue if every widget was defective. Source(s): I'm a advocate
Not sure. But as someone that got a distinction in Contract Law, I can update you that you aren't going to need to know that for your final exam. Just state that it isn't presumed and give the authority (it's Balfour v Balfour, if you're Australian). That's adjectives they want.

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